QUESTION 1 A system administrator checks the endpoint database and discovers MAC addresses that belong to inactive local nodes. Which description of the retention of the MAC addresses for the local nodes is true? A. After five minutes, the inactive nodes are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf B. The local database is cleared only when the leaf reboots C. The leaf sends three ARP requests after an 210-451 dumps aging period. The MAC addresses are stored to the local endpoint database aft long as the devices respond to the requests D. After 15 minutes, the inactive nodes are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2 Which two features are supported for configuration synchronization? (Choose two ) A. port profile B. GEM pre-provisioning C. configurations rollbacks D. feature sets E. FCoE Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 3 Which configuration is needed to extend the EPG out of the Cisco ACI fabric? A. Create external bridged networks B. Statically assign a port to EPG C Apply a policy between the internal and the external EPG C. Extend the tenant subnet of the bridge domain out of the fabric Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4 What occurs when the Cisco ACI fabric receives 220-801 exam multi destination traffic? A. The traffic is forwarded as broadcast traffic B. The traffic is forwarded as multicast traffic C. The traffic is suppressed D. The traffic is forwarded as unicast traffic Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5 You are configuration a group of web servers and you create a contract that uses TCP port 80. Which action allows an external Layer 3 cloud to initiate communication with the EPG that contains the web servers? A. Configure the EPG as a consumer and L3Out as provider of the contract B. Configure OSPF to exchange routes between the L3Out and EPG C. Create a taboo contract and apply it to the EPG D. Configure the EPG as a provider and L3Out as consumer of the contract. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6 A unicast packet enters into the front panel port of a leaf switch. The leaf switch performs a forwarding lookup for the packet destination IP address and has a miss result Assuming default configuration, which statement about what happens next is true'? A. The packet is sent to the forwarding proxy in the spine switch B. The packet is dropped on the leaf switch C. The packet is sent to another leaf switch within the same bridge domain D. The packet is flooded across the entire fabric 220-901 dumps because it is an unknown unicast. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7 You have a VSM that experiences a failure. Which two options are results of the failure? (Choose two ) A. CLI access to the virtual switch continues to work without any interruption B. VEM stops working C. Traffic forwarding stops for a short period of time and then continues to work normally D. Traffic forwarding continues to work without any interruption E. VMware vMotion stops working Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 8 What is the retention period for remotely attached endpoint? A. 3 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 5 minutes D. 10 minutes Correct Answer: A QUESTION 9 Which feature of a Cisco Nexus 1000V Servers Switch 220-902 dumps allows you to deploy traffic steering for a virtual infrastructure? A. SOT B. PVLAN C. ACL D. vPath Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10 Refer to the exhibit: For which option is the L3OUT-1 connection used? A. bridge domain BD2 B. private network CIX1 C. private network Network-2 D. bridge domain BD1 Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11 You deploy AVS for Virtual Manager integration and you add a host that has five VMNICs. You must use VXLAN to maximize the load balancing of the traffic inside the fabric. How many VMKNICs must you add?A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 8 Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12 You have a contract between in-band and out-of-band 2v0-621 dumps EPGs. Which two descriptions of this contention are true? (Choose two ) A. Filters apply m the incoming direction only B. Both EPGs must be m one VRF C. Management statistics are available D. Shared services for CPU-bound traffic are supported E. The configuration supports Layer 2 Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 13 Which type of server is needed to provide POAP with a configuration script? A. DHCP B. SCP C. FTP D. TFTP Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14 Which action occurs first when a device that has the POAP feature boots and cannot find the startup configuration? A. The device locates a DHCP server B. The device enters POAP mode C. The device obtains the IP address of a TFTP server D. The device installs software image and a configuration file Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15 Which two options are advantages of VMware AVS instead of a VMware vDS? (Choose two ) A. AVS supports vPath B. AVS supports VLAN C. AVS provides a single point of management for networking D. AVS supports VXLAN E. AVS supports micro segmentation Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 16 Which protocol is used as the link-state routing protocol for a DFA fabric? A. VXLAN B. EIGRP C. Fabric Path IS-IS D. OSPF Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17 You are trouble shooting node discovery issues by using the acidiag fnvread command. Which description of the node status when the CLI output shows a status of Discovering is true? A. The node is decommissioned B. The node ID is configured, but not discovered yet C. The node is discovered, but an IP address is not assigned yet D. The node is discovered, but the node ID policy is 2V0-621D dumps not configured yet Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18 Why should you configure DHCP relay for Virtual Machine Manager integration? A. to create VTEP VMK interfaces on each host for the OpFlex control channel B. to provide IP addresses to ESXi hosts C. to provide IP addresses to virtual hosts through the VXLAN infrastructure D. to ensure that virtual hosts have the same address when they are moved by using VMware vMotion Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19 The behavior of which packet type can be controlled by selecting unicast mode or flood mode in a bridge domain? A. ARP B. unknown unicast C. LLDP D. CDP Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20 Which statement about POAP licensing correctly describes temporary licensing? A. Temporary licensing is invoked by using the license grace-period command B. Temporary licensing is enabled automatically and is valid for 60 days C. Temporary licensing is invoked by using the license Install command D. Temporary licensing is enabled automatically and is valid for 30 days Correct Answer: A QUESTION 21 Refer to the exhibit : You define the port profiles as shown in the exhibit, and then you assign the P10GIG port profile to interface el" Which option is the result of this configuration? A. The speed of the interface is 10 Gbps B. The speed of the interface is 1 Gbps C. The interface uses the maximum speed available for the physical interface. D. The speed of the interface is 100 GbpS Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22 Which two options are benefits of using the configuration synchronization feature? (Choose two ) A. Supports the feature command B. Supports existing session and port profile functionalityC. can be used by any Cisco Nexus switch D. merges configurations when connectivity is established between peers O supports FCoE in vPC topologies Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 23 Which Cisco technology addresses management and 300-085 dumps performance concerns in a data center by unifying physical and virtual switch management? A. VSO B. SVM C. VM-FEX D. AVS Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24 You are deploying L4-L7 services within Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure You need to modify an existing service graph. Where do you configure this? A. under the provider EPG B. on a connector within a service graph C. on a function profile within a service graph D. on a terminal node within a service graph Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25 Which two parameters are part of the Cisco APIC first time setup and must be configured? (Choose two ) A. the fabric node vector configuration B. the LLDP adjacency configuration C. the out of-band management configuration D. the cluster configuration E. the APIC LLDP configuration Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 26 Which component is excluded from a device package ZIP file? A. debug logs B. device-level configuration parameters C. function profile D. device scripts Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27 Which type of discovery is used in the Cisco ACI fabric for automatic discovery? A. ACI B. Cisco APIC C. DHCP D. LLDR Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28 When connecting to an external Layer 3 network, 300-365 dumps which two dynamic routing protocols can be used? (Choose two ) A. RIPv2 B. EIGRP C. VXLAN D. lS-IS E. OSPF Correct Answer: E QUESTION 29 Which option are L4-L7 devices registered as on a Cisco APIC? A. one virtual device B. a cluster C. one physical device D. more virtual devices Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30 A host connected to a leaf switch sends an ARP request By default, what does the ingress switch do with the ARP requests? A. Suppress the ARP B. Send the ARP by using unicast. C. Send the ARP by using a broadcast D. Send the ARP by using multicast Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31 You create a dynamic VLAN pool to be used for Virtual Machine Manager integration On which two other components must you ensure the VLANs m the pool are allowed? (Choose two ) A. AVS B. Cisco Nexus 1000V C. the intermediate switch D. vS witch E. the Cisco UCS blade system Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 32 Which Cisco APlC health score will be affected if an EPG does not have a Bridge Domain associated with it ? A. spine health B. leaf health C. tenant health D. pod health Correct Answer: C QUESTION 33 Refer to the exhibit: Which option describes the results of running the configuration on a Cisco Nexus 9000 Series Switch? A. A schedule'' job named Backup backs up the configuration to a file named backup-cfg. B. A scheduler job named backup-cfg runs daily at 2:00. C. A scheduler job named Backup runs twice dailyD. A scheduler job named Backup runs daily at 2 00 and save the configuration to a file named backup-cfg. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 34 Which type of Embedded Event Manager component pars events with one or more actions to troubleshoot or recover from the event? A. monitor B. action C. policy D. event Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35 You have a network that has three subnets You migrate the network to a Cisco ACI fabric You want to bridge the three subnets without changing the IP addresses of the endpoints The default gateway for the endpoints does not sit on the ACI fabric. Which action must you take to keep the three subnets in a single Hood domain? A. Create multiple bridge domains that have unicast routing disabled within the same EPO Connect the existing subnets to the bridge domains B. Create one bridge domain that has unicast routing disabled and connect the existing subnets to the bridge domain C. Create one bridge domain that has unicast routing enabled and create corresponding subnets inside the bridge domain cissp dumps Connect the existing network to the bridge domain D. Create multiple bridge domains that have unicast routing enabled within the saw EPG Create corresponding subnets inside the bridge domains and connect the existing network to the bridge domains. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36 You discover that a VLAN is not enabled on a leaf port even though on EPG is provisioned. Which cause of the issue is most likely true? A. Cisco Discovery protocol is enabled m the interface policy group B. A VLAN pool is not defined under the associated physical domain C. The VLAN is not specified in a contract D. An interface policy must define the VLAN pool Correct Answer: B QUESTION 37 Refer to the exhibit: You perform the configuration as shown in the exhibit Which two additional tasks must you perform to deploy EPG on PC . VPC . or Interface? (Choose two ) A. Add the border leaf node to the Layer 2 outside connection B. Create an Attachable Access Entity Profile C. Create a Layer 2 outside connection D. Create a physical domain and a VLAN pool for the physical domain, and associate the physical domain to the EPG WEB E. Extend the VLAN represented by EPG out pi the Cisco ACI fabric Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 38 Which two method does a Cisco APIC supports to connect to the management IP address of a service appliance? (Choose two.) A. out-of-band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the management VLAN D in band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the VRF of the tenant B. out-of-band connectivity to devices m device clusters by using the VRF of the tenant C. out-of-band connectivity to devices m device clusters by using the management VRF of the tenant D. in band connectivity to devices m device 1z0-067 dumps clusters by using the management VRF of the tenant Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 39 What occurs when you make an interface a member of an existing VRF m Cisco NX-OS? A. The a VRF-Aware services start to be filtered B. You are prompted to enter an IP address assignment C. All of the Layer 3 configurations are removed D. The state of the interface is changed to down Correct Answer: C QUESTION 40 You need to create and configure a VRF for IP forwarding on a Cisco Nexus Series Switch running in NX-OS. Drag and drop the configuration steps from the left into the correct order on the right. PRINCE2 dumps Not all options are


dez 8th

Como a metodologia SMART pode auxiliar no crescimento do seu negócio

Posted by with 2 Comments

Criar objetivos e traçar metas é importante. E para tirá-los do papel é preciso desenhar um processo de execução ajustado a sua realidade para colocá-lo em ação. Então, fuja das ideias megalomaníacas porque não há mágica que transforme um real em um milhão em apenas 24 horas, certo? Por isso aqui na LaPresse utilizamos, como uma das metodologias, a SMART (Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Timely).

Sempre que vamos traçar um planejamento, seja de negócios ou de mídias sociais, aplicamos uma das metodologias. Como a SMART é de fácil visualização, normalmente damos preferência a elas, facilitando o compreendimento de toda equipe, desde os gestores aos funcionários com uma vivência menos aprofundada no negócio.

A metodologia SMART leva em conta cinco pontos: especificidade, mensuração, alcance, relevância e prazo, sendo possível criar um planejamento de trabalho todo baseado nesses cinco passos. Abaixo descrevemos cada um deles para deixar ainda mais explicado:

smart(S) Specific: Específico

Esta primeira letra significa que o seu objetivo, necessariamente, tem que ser específico e claro sobre o que você quer atingir, normalmente colocando números e dados. Quanto mais específica for a sua meta, maior a facilidade dela ser atingida perfeitamente.

Na prática: Descreva de forma focada a estratégia que ao invés de ser aumento de vendas, deve ser aumento de vendas em x%, ou para um determinado público, região ou mercado.

(M) Measurable: Mensurável

Todo objetivo descrito precisa ser mensurável de alguma forma. E essa forma de avaliação do resultado também precisa estar descrita neste momento, para, assim, podemos notar a evolução até o objetivo ao longo do tempo.

Na prática: Aqui é a forma como vamos medir o resultado da estratégia. Seguindo o exemplo que demos anteriormente, para analisar o crescimento das vendas, podemos utilizar desde planilhas a plataforma de gerenciamento de vendas.

(A) Attainable/Achievable: Alcançável

Os objetivos não podem ser fáceis para não serem alcançados na metade do tempo limite. E nem tão ousados que se tornem impossíveis de serem alcançados no tempo estipulado. Caso um dos dois pontos ocorra, pode causar desânimo ou ilusão em toda equipe. Desafie-se na medida do possível! Não extrapole os limites.

Na prática: Para se ter uma meta real é preciso se analisar de dentro para fora, analisando a performance comercial de seu negócio, do mercado e dos concorrentes. Assim, o crescimento das vendas, novos público ou a entrada de um novo mercado será pautada na necessidade do cliente e não no ego do empresário.

(R) Relevant: Relevância

Cada um dos objetivos traçados precisam ser relevantes para a sua empresa. Se são desnecessários, deixe-os de lado. Afinal, será um esforço desnecessário feito por você e sua equipe para atingir algo que não precisava ser conquistado. Avalie os ganhos que serão obtidos através da conclusão de determinado objetivo e verifique se esta meta é realmente relevante.

Na prática: Neste ponto identifique as peças do seu time e parceiros que podem contribuir para alcançar a meta e como se dará isso.

(T) Time: Prazo

Este último passo consiste em definir o tempo limite, o prazo, o deadline para que o objetivo seja conquistado. Não podem existir metas sem deadline, pois ocorrerá a acomodação por parte da equipe de execução e a falta de prioridade será uma dura realidade.

Vale a pena lembrar também que, o que não pode ser medido, não pode ser avaliado através da metodologia SMART. Faça objetivos claros, concisos e possíveis de serem alcançados. Mantenha os pés no chão, mas não seja impedido de voar até onde deseja!


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  1. Dielson Kleber Pickler
    24 de janeiro de 2017 at 11:30

    Usei essas informações para ajudar meu cliente a elaborar o planejamento anual dele. Fiz uma apresentação, citei alguns exemplos e depois fomos para a prática (escrever).
    O resultado foi ótimo!
    Principalmente depois que organizamos uma planilha e começamos a colocar no papel, fica tudo mais claro e de fácil compreensão.

    Obrigado pelo artigo!

    • Luana Weitzel
      25 de janeiro de 2017 at 22:55

      A gente ama ajudar os empreendedores e seu feedback nos deixou muito felizes!


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